(If you have not done so already, please read the previous posting, "God is in 'Control'?" This essay builds on the previous one.)
Theology can influence how Bibles are translated, published and read. Religious training steers the Biblically uninformed and illiterate into reading scripture in a manner agreeable with accepted theology. The religious adherent are trained to read out of context and to ignore previous scripture on the same subject.
Religion has been teaching for centuries that God is in control of everything; thus sickness and disease is sent by him upon those who sin against him. This doctrine is a logical one, IF God really is in control and is directing everything. Supposedly, this doctrine is a recognition of the supreme majestic rulership of God. This is most curious, because this doctrine requires that we accuse our wonderful heavenly father of unimaginable evil in order to recognize his supremacy.
In the book of John, there is a record of a man born blind. The question on the mind of the disciples was a legalistic one – who sinned and caused this man to be born blind? Was it his parents or was it the man himself? You can see that the doctrine of reincarnation had been influencing the Hebrew culture of the 1st century. It is also plain that they did not dare take the unimaginable step of accusing God of causing this mans blindness.
For centuries and even in our day, this scripture is translated purposely to read that God (capriciously) made a man to be born blind so that Jesus could heal him. Lets examine a contemporary translation of this scripture.
John 9:1 – 4 (ESV)
1 As he passed by, he saw a man blind from birth. 2 And his disciples asked him, “Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?” 3 Jesus answered, “It was not that this man sinned, or his parents, but that the works of God might be displayed in him. 4 We must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming, when no one can work.
Notice a few details; there are verse numbers, punctuation and capitalization of words. The manuscripts we have which are used to generate the Bible translations (not the versions) have no verses, punctuation or capitalization. The verses, punctuation and capitalization were all added by man and are not inspired by God. None of the prophets or men of God that wrote the scriptures were ever directed to include verses or punctuation. These were all added by the translators. Sometimes they did a good job, other times they were so influenced by their man made political, religious and theological background that it affected their translation.
In this case, one small period causes the truth to be lost. One small period is all that stands between the truth of the goodness of God and the error of accusing Him of monstrous evil. This period is at the end of verse 3 and before the beginning of verse 4.
John 9:3, 4 (ESV)
3 Jesus answered, “It was not that this man sinned, or his parents, but that the works of God might be displayed in him. 4 We must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming, when no one can work.
Jesus answers the question, indicating that no one sinned; sin was not the cause of this man being born blind. That is the answer to the question. However, he continues speaking. The next word is "but". This sets in contrast that which follows with that which was spoken before. Now Jesus is speaking about the works of God. Removing the period at the end of verse 3 does not violate the integrity of the Word of God as it was added by man. Lets remove it and read what Jesus said:
"…but that the works of God might be displayed in him, we must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming, when no one can work."
So, what did Jesus really say? He concluded answering the disciples question and began teaching them that NOW is the time to perform the works of God. In order that the works of God might be displayed in this blind man, "we", Jesus and the disciples, must work the works of him who sent me while it is day.
This is a vast difference between the truth of the goodness of God and the theologically influenced translation which propounds error through a simple period.
The "Holy Bible from the ancient eastern text" (ISBN 0-06-064923-2) by George M. Lamsa is a translation from the Aramaic Peshitta text. It handles this scripture as follows:
"3 Jesus said to them, Neither did he sin nor his parents. But that the works of God might be seen in him, 4 I must do the works of him who sent me, while it is day; the night comes when no man can work."
The conclusion and the answer to the question posed by the title of this essay is NO. No, God did not make a blind man. He did not cause a man to be born blind. God was the source of his deliverance. Through his son, Jesus Christ, the man was healed of his blindness. Now you know the truth. Glorify God, for he is ALWAYS GOOD!